BUS 335 Week 9 Quiz– Strayer New
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8 Chapter 11 and 12
Student:
___________________________________________________________________________
1. Practical
significance is the sign of a correlation
coefficient.
True False
2. Validity
refers to the relationship between predictor and criterion
scores.
True False
3. A
useful predictor is one where the sign of the relationship is consistent with
the logic or theory behind the
predictor.
True False
4. Statistical
significance is stated as a probability and indicates a given predictor's
chances of yielding similar validity coefficients with different sets of
applicants.
True False
5. A
significance level of p<0.05 means that there are fewer than 5 chances in
100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants,
when in fact, there is not.
True False
6. In
general, the greater the correlation of a given predictor with other predictors
of a criterion, the more useful the predictor will
be.
True False
7. The
usefulness of a predictor is determined by the value it adds to the prediction
of job success above and beyond the forecasting powers of other available
predictors.
True False
8. There
are no cases in which a predictor has high validity and high adverse
impact.
True False
9. All
other things being equal, if a selection specialist must decide between two
predictors, the one that causes the least adverse impact would be the best
choice.
True False
10. Utility
refers to the expected gains to be derived from using a
predictor.
True False
11. The
selection ratio is the number of people hired divided by the number of
applicants, and it is desirable that this ratio be
high.
True False
12. It
is desirable that the denominator of a selection ratio be
small.
True False
13. The
base rate is the number of hirees divided by the number of
employees.
True False
14. When
deciding whether or not to use a new predictor, the validity coefficient, the
base rate, and the selection ratio should be considered in combination, not
independently.
True False
15. The
most fundamental concern regarding utility analysis is that it lacks
realism.
True False
16. If
you are using the "economic gains formula," and you have just
increased the validity of your selection procedures with no change in cost, your
economic gain value should increase.
True False
17. The
most difficult factor in the economic gain formula to estimate is "cost
per applicant".
True False
18. Utility
analysis models do not take factors like EEO/AA concerns into account.
True False
19. Research
suggests that managers prefer the results of utility analysis to the
presentation of simple validity
coefficients.
True False
20. Utility
decreases as the number of valid predictors used in the selection process
increases.
True False
21. If
you are evaluating the usefulness of a given predictor in predicting job
success, and you are interested in the value the predictor adds to the
prediction of job success, you want to know the predictor's
________.
A. validity coefficient
B. practical
significance
C. sign
D. statistical significance
22. When
HR specialists state that a new predictor "adds value" to the
prediction of job success, they mean that _____.
A. the predictor
provides economic benefit to prediction
B. the predictor has a high
validity coefficient
C. the predictor adds to the prediction of job
success over and beyond the forecasting powers of current
predictors
D. the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors,
thus increasing efficiency
23. A
significance level of p<0.05 in a validity study means
_________.
A. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of
concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in
fact, there is not
B. that there are 5 chances in 100 of concluding that
there is not a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact,
there is
C. that the practical significance of the observed relationship
is very low
D. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 that a predictor
has adverse impact
24. Validity
refers to __________.
A. the number of individuals hired by a
predictor
B. the number of individuals hired divided by the number of
applicants
C. the relationship between predictor and criterion
scores
D. the inverse of the adverse impact ratio
25. If
an HR specialist is assessing the usefulness of predictors in forecasting job
success, and it is noted that a given predictor has both high validity and high
adverse impact, the HR specialist should conclude
___________.
A. this can never happen and the method of calculating
validity must be incorrect
B. this is a common circumstance and the
predictor should be used
C. if the predictor is highly correlated with
other predictors, this will compensate for adverse impact
D. legal
problems could result and alternative predictors should be sought
26. Under
which circumstances is "hiring success gain" likely to be
optimal?
A. Low selection ratio, low base rate, high
validity
B. High selection ratio, high base rate, high
validity
C. High selection ratio, low base rate, high
validity
D. High selection ratio, low base rate, low validity
27. Which
of the following is the most difficult to estimate term in the economic gain
formula?
A. Average tenure of employees.
B. Number of
applicants.
C. Dollar value of job performance.
D. Cost per
applicant.
28. Taylor-Russell
tables are an effective decision making tool in that they
________.
A. allow for calculating selection ratios
B. enable
HR specialists to calculate utility ratios
C. allow simultaneous
consideration of a predictor's base rate, selection ratio, and
validity
D. help to increase validity coefficients to more acceptable
levels
29. Economic
gain formulas provide the HR specialist with an estimate of
______.
A. the economic gain derived from using a predictor versus
random selection
B. the economic gain from using random
selection
C. the economic gain of the standard deviation of job
performance
D. the economic gain of the validity coefficient
30. A
compensatory approach to selection decisions means that applicants must earn a
passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection
process.
True False
31. The
clinical prediction method of determining an applicant's score on a job
assessment instrument relies on adding the individual predictor scores together
to arrive at the applicant's total
score.
True False
32. The
"unit weighting" method of determining the score of a job applicant
on an assessment instrument considers the relative importance of each
predictor.
True False
33. Multiple
regression will be more precise than unit weighting if there is a small number
of predictors, low correlations between predictors, and a large
sample.
True False
34. The
multiple hurdles method of setting a passing score for a job predictor would be
a cost efficient method for making decisions about
hiring.
True False
35. The
_________ approach means that selection decisions means that scores on one
predictor can make up for low scores on another.
A. multiple hurdles
B. Markov
process
C. compensatory model
D. none of the above
36. The
_________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on the expert
judgment of the manager.
A. multiple regression
B. clinical
prediction
C. unit weighting
D. none of the above
37. The
_________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on assigning
weights by statistical procedures and then adding predictor scores
together.
A. multiple regression
B. clinical
prediction
C. unit weighting
D. none of the above
38. The
_________ approach means that an applicant must earn a passing score on each
predictor before advancing in the selection process.
A. multiple
hurdles
B. Markov process
C. compensatory model
D. none of the
above
39. In
establishing procedures for setting cutoff scores, organizations should stress
the job-relatedness of the assessment procedure and de-emphasize
validity.
True False
40. In
assessing cutoff scores, a "false negative" is an applicant who is
assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if
hired.
True False
41. In
assessing cutoff scores, a "false positive" is an applicant who is
assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if
hired.
True False
42. The
minimum competency method involves setting the cut score on the basis of the
minimum qualifications deemed necessary to perform a
job.
True False
43. In
top down hiring, all individuals who are above a minimum competency point are
hired.
True False
44. There
is little evidence that individuals who perceive themselves to be overqualified
are less satisfied or have higher intentions to
turnover.
True False
45. The
law prohibits using different norms for test scores of minority and majority
groups.
True False
46. Banding
is a procedure whereby applicants who score in different score ranges or bands
are considered to have scored
equivalently.
True False
47. Applicants
react positively when banding is associated with affirmative action.
True False
48. An
applicant who is hired but does not perform successfully is a
______________.
A. true positive
B. false positive
C. true
negative
D. false negative
49. An
applicant who is not hired but who would have performed successfully if hired
is a ______________.
A. true positive
B. false
positive
C. true negative
D. false negative
50. If
a cutoff score is lowered, the effect of this on hiring results is likely to be
______________.
A. fewer false negatives only
B. both fewer false
negatives and more true positives
C. fewer false negatives and fewer false
positives
D. more false negatives and more false positives
51. If
a cutoff scores is set based on the qualifications deemed necessary to perform
a job, it is most likely the ______ method of determining cut
scores.
A. top-down
B. criterion-related
C. minimum
competency
D. banding
52. When
applicants who score within a certain score range are considered to have scored
equivalently ________.
A. top-down
B. criterion-related
C. minimum
competency
D. banding
53. Which
of the following statements is a useful guideline for setting cutoff
scores?
A. Cutoff scores should be consistent with normal
expectations of acceptable proficiency within the workforce.
B. The job
relatedness of assessment procedures should not be correlated with
validity.
C. A single "best" method of setting cutoff scores
should be identified.
D. Cutoff scores should be set to maximize true
positives.
54. When
random selection is used to select the finalist to whom a job offer will be
made, discretionary assessment methods should be
used.
True False
55. In
ranking finalists are ordered from the most desirable to the least desirable
based on the results of discretionary
assessments.
True False
56. One
disadvantage of ranking is that it doesn't provide a clear suggestion of the
order in which candidates should be offered
jobs.
True False
57. Ongoing
hiring is most common in organizations with very high turnover
rates.
True False
58. When
using ___________, each finalist has an equal chance of being
selected.
A. ranking
B. random selection
C. clinical
prediction
D. grouping
59. When
using ___________, finalists are ordered from the most desirable to the least
desirable based on results of discretionary
assessments.
A. ranking
B. random selection
C. clinical
prediction
D. grouping
60. When
using ___________, finalists are banded together into rank-ordered
categories.
A. ranking
B. random selection
C. clinical
prediction
D. grouping
61. In
general, HR specialists should orchestrate the development of staffing policies
and procedures for all departments, but play a secondary, or supporting role in
the ultimate decision to hire in areas outside of the HR department.
True False
62. Since
line managers are not usually technical experts in staffing processes, their
input comes to play only in regard to hiring
decisions.
True False
63. In
terms of who should participate in selection decision making (i.e., HR
professionals vs. line managers), HR professionals would be least likely to
________.
A. make the hiring decision
B. establish selection
procedures
C. ensure relevant laws and regulations are being
followed
D. represent the interests of employees to management
64. In
which of the following assessment procedures is the participation of line
managers most needed?
A. initial assessment
B. substantive
methods
C. discretionary methods
D. background investigations
65. Employees
are most likely to be involved in hiring decision making if they are organized
in __________.
A. solo work
B. functional
harmony
C. teams
D. none of the above
66. If
adverse impact occurs because of certain selection procedures, these procedures
may be justified under UGESP through validity studies.
True False
67. The
two options the UGESP recommends for minimizing adverse impact are use of
within-group norming and banding.
True False
68. The
law suggests that unless the organization is under a formal AAP, protected
characteristics should not be considered in selection decision
making.
True False
69. If
an organization wishes to comply with the law and still increase the diversity
of its workforce, it should ___________.
A. de-emphasize selection
based on KSAOs
B. use recruitment as a tool for attracting a more diverse
and qualified applicant pool
C. use clinical and other subjective
prediction methods
D. all of the above
70. Uniform
Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures establish guidelines for
record-keeping ___________.
A. of applicants' sex
B. of
applicants' race
C. for major job categories
D. all of the above
Chapter
12
Student:
___________________________________________________________________________
1. The
three elements required for a contract to be legally binding are: offer,
acceptance, and written documentation.
True False
2. It
is very important for an organization to know, in advance, whether an
individual will be classified as either an employee or an independent
contractor.
True False
3. A
third party is someone other than the employer or the offer receiver who speaks
on their behalf in the establishment or modification of employment
contracts.
True False
4. The
law is relatively indifferent between the use of written contracts and the use
of oral contracts.
True False
5. Statements
in employee handbooks can be construed as employment
contracts.
True False
6. The
"one year rule" ensures that oral agreements for time intervals
greater than one year are legally
enforceable.
True False
7. If
a letter of acceptance says an employee needs to work on weekends, but the
employer makes an oral promise that the employee will not have to work on
weekends, the oral statement could be legally
binding.
True False
8. If
a co-worker promises a prospective employee overtime hours while visiting the
prospective employee in his/her home, this promised "term" of the
employment would likely be legally
enforceable.
True False
9. A
disclaimer on an employment application blank stating that the employee can be
terminated "with or without cause" and "with or without
notice" is legally enforceable.
True False
10. It
is extremely important for organizations to be sure to keep promises that they
make to job applicants in order to avoid subsequent
lawsuits.
True False
11. In
order for "promissory estoppel" claim to apply when a job offer is
made, the offer recipient must suffer a detrimental
effect.
True False
12. Which
of the following elements are required for a contract to be legally binding and
enforceable?
A. offer
B. acceptance
C. consideration
D. all
of the above
13. Consideration
in a contract entails __________.
A. evidence that both parties
agree to the terms as offered
B. a polite exchange of
information
C. the exchange of something of value between the parties to
the contract
D. none of the above
14. Which
of the following statements about written contracts is false?
A. The
law favors written contracts over oral contracts.
B. A statement on a job
application blank could be construed as a written contract.
C. Written
statements in employee handbooks that are unintended as contracts cannot be
construed as contracts.
D. Internal job posting notices can be construed
as written job contracts.
15. Which
of the following circumstances makes it less likely an oral statement about
weekend work would be legally enforceable as a contract term?
A. The
statement was made in the workplace.
B. The statement is not supported by
a written policy.
C. The statement was made by an organizational
manager.
D. The statement was a specific one.
16. Which
of the following statements about disclaimers is false?
A. They can
appear in almost any written documents made available to job applicants or
employees.
B. They can be used to limit employee rights.
C. They are
never oral.
D. Their receipt by employees should be acknowledged in some
formal way.
17. In
order to improve the chances of winning a law suit based on "promissory
estoppel," the most important point the plaintiff must demonstrate is that
____.
A. the promise was accurate
B. the promise was made in
good faith
C. the defendant reneged on the promise
D. the promise was
withdrawn, resulting in a detrimental effect
18. Upon
acceptance, a formal job offer in which consideration is provided to employees
becomes a contract.
True False
19. Terms
and conditions of employment offered by employers unintentionally are not
legally enforceable.
True False
20. With
a tight labor market, the organization will be in a position to provide lower
cost offers.
True False
21. The
strategic approach to job offers involves considering the total package of
extrinsic and intrinsic rewards that the offered job will provide to the
finalist.
True False
22. An
organization should provide a definite starting date for an offer, or else the
acceptance and consideration of the offer occur whenever the new hire actually
begins to work.
True False
23. Most
organizations provide some form of specific "just cause" guarantee
regarding terminations during their job
offers.
True False
24. One
reason organizations often opt out of flat pay rates in favor of differential
pay rates, is because job applicants are similar in KSAO
quality.
True False
25. The
use of short-term incentive pay, like commissions or production bonuses, is
common among private sector
organizations.
True False
26. Hiring
bonuses tend to enhance employee performance
motivation.
True False
27. The
least common form of long-term variable pay in the private sector is the cost
of living adjustment.
True False
28. Hiring
bonuses can be problematic because recipients of these bonuses might take the
bonus and then quit soon after.
True False
29. A
hot skill premium is a permanent pay premium added to the regular base pay to
account for market escalation in pay for certain skills in extreme
shortage.
True False
30. Non-compete
agreements that would keep employees from indefinitely practicing their trade
or profession are not enforceable.
True False
31. A
non-compete agreement restricts a departing employee from competing against the
organization.
True False
32. Golden
handcuff agreements legally bar employees from quitting a job for a specific
period of time.
True False
33. Written
job offers should normally contain terms of acceptance that require acceptance
without revision.
True False
34. Which
of the following is likely to be a contingency related to a job
offer?
A. satisfactory reference checks
B. job salary
C. job
benefits
D. job vacation privileges
35. Which
of the following is not a choice involved in a strategic approach to job
offers?
A. determining a compelling offer the finalists will find
difficult to turn down
B. deciding which short and long term pressures to
respond to in an offer
C. deciding on specific pay levels that will apply
to all individuals
D. determine whether there will be a "standard
offer" for all finalists or whether "enhanced offers" will be
possible for some finalists
36. A
_____ contract provides certainty to both the new hire and the organization
regarding the length of the employment relationship.
A. variable
premium
B. fixed annuity
C. fixed-term
D. latent variable
37. Flat
pay rate job offers are least appropriate for _______.
A. situations
where applicants have very dissimilar KSAOs
B. jobs with a plentiful
supply of applicants
C. situations where management desires to avoid
inequities in starting pay among new employees
D. jobs where applicants
have KSAOs of similar quality
38. Terms
and conditions that the organization states the employee is entitled to upon
departure from the organization constitute _________.
A. pay
rates
B. health benefits
C. severance packages
D. life insurance
39. Long-term
variable pay plans provide employees ownership opportunities as the value of
the organization increases are applicable only in the
____.
A. public sector
B. private sector
C. technology
sector
D. none of the above
40. Which
of the following is true regarding long-term variable pay?
A. Stock
options qualify for special tax treatment for employees.
B. Small public
organizations are more likely to provide stock options than large public
organizations.
C. Stock options guarantee a fixed rate of return on
investment.
D. None of the above
41. Studies
of job seekers graduating from hotel administration and engineering programs
showed that job offers involving _____ are seen more
favorably.
A. pay contingent on performance
B. pay raises based
on group performance
C. a flexible benefits package
D. pay pegged to
skills
42. A
_____ is a right to purchase a share of stock for a predetermined price at a
later date.
A. stock option
B. profit share
C. realized
dividend
D. mutual fund
43. A
temporary pay premium added to the regular base pay of an employee to account
for a temporary market escalation in pay for certain skills in extreme shortage
is called a(n) ____________.
A. hot skill premium
B. tight
labor market adjustment
C. key skill premium
D. none of the above
44. ______
prohibit current or departing employees from the unauthorized use or disclosure
of information during or after employment.
A. Non-compete
agreements
B. Retainers
C. Confidentiality
clauses
D. Mixed-motive contracts
45. Non-compete
agreements should be drafted in such a way that they cover
____.
A. high-value employees
B. experienced
employees
C. all employees
D. only managerial, technical, and
scientific staff
46. Organizations
can gauge the likely reactions of job applicants to job offers not only by
conducting formal research, but also by gathering information about various
preferences from the offer recipient during the actual recruitment/selection
process.
True False
47. Access
to typical salary information for various occupations or job titles is very
hard to come by, especially for job
seekers.
True False
48. Applicant
dishonesty is a common problem as relates to the reporting of the applicant's
current salary.
True False
49.
A currently employed offer receiver normally incurs costs for leaving and will
expect a "make whole" offer amounting to 20-30% of the offer
receiver's current base pay.
True False
50. The
lowball strategy will be especially effective for desperate or unknowledgeable
employees.
True False
51. An
advantage of the "competitive strategy" for negotiating initial job
offers is that this strategy repeatedly yields acceptances from the highest
quality (KSAOs) applicants.
True False
52. When
job offer negotiating strategies are to be used as part of an aggressive EEO/AA
recruitment program, the strategy most appropriate to be used in such a
situation is the "competitive
strategy."
True False
53. When
rejecting job applicants, most organizations do so with a rejection message to
the applicant that is short and vague in content.
True False
54. In
using information about competitors to structure job offers, which of the
following statements is not useful as a general guideline?
A. It
makes a difference who the competitors are.
B. Competitive offers should
always be matched to ensure acceptance.
C. Analysis of competitive
advertisements should be performed in order to have the "market
information" needed to prepare effective job offers.
D. Trade
associations should be consulted for competitive information whenever possible.
55. The
most sensible approach for addressing the issue of applicant truthfulness would
be to ________.
A. receive applicant information in good faith since
the majority of applicants will be honest and it is not fair to inconvenience
everyone with more verification because of a few "bad
apples"
B. treat applicants with trust and they will respond with
honesty in most cases
C. have applicants provide independent, third-party
documentation of all job information provided on application
blanks
D. verify the applicant information provided that is deemed most
vital
56. The
most commonly negotiated element of a job offer is ___.
A. severance
packages
B. educational assistance
C. salary
D. paid time off
57. As
a general rule concerning job offers, it can be said that
__________.
A. "low ball" job offers are expensive to the
organization
B. "competitive" job offers have no important
drawbacks
C. "competitive" job offers tend to leave room to
negotiate
D. "competitive" offers usually stimulate the most
positive reactions on the part of offer recipients
58. The
sales approach to presenting a job offer has been adopted by many organizations
because ________.
A. mechanical presentations of job offers have
been proven not to work
B. they apply to all situations
C. they cost
less than mechanical presentations
D. they may increase the likelihood of
bringing job offers to closure
59. Most
rejection messages sent to applicants are _________.
A. specific in
terms of the reason for the rejection
B. not conveyed by formal
means
C. vague in content
D. designed carefully to "soften the
blow" of the rejection
60. Which
of the following statements about reneging on job offers is
false?
A. reneging is often caused by sudden changes in
circumstances, such as a change in health status
B. there are substantial
legal concerns about reneging
C. most employers feel the level of reneging
has increased dramatically in recent years
D. solid evidence on reneging
and why it occurs is lacking
61. Orientation
is likely to be more effective when newcomers have realistic information about
job requirements and rewards before the job
begins.
True False
62. Orientation
should focus on the person/job match
exclusively.
True False
63. Whereas
orientation focuses on the initial and immediate aspects of newcomer
adaptation, socialization emphasizes helping the newcomer fit into the job and
organization over time.
True False
64. One
way to improve employee socialization outcomes is to provide realistic
requirement information regarding job requirements and
rewards.
True False
65. Clarifying
job requirements and knowledge of skills are the only demonstrated methods for
consistently improving employee
socialization.
True False
66. Research
suggests that socialization programs are equally effective when conducted
online relative to person-to-person.
True False
67. Effective
orientation training should include __________.
A. sources of
influence in the organization
B. integrating the newcomer into the work
unit and team
C. conducting active mentoring for the newcomer
D. all
of the above
68. What
is the relationship between orientation and socialization
activities?
A. Orientation covers job content, socialization covers
social content.
B. Orientation is usually a small group activity,
socialization is one on one.
C. Orientation is typically an immediate
activity for new hires, which overlaps with more long-term
socialization.
D. Orientation is formal, socialization is informal.
69. The
goal(s) of the socialization process is(are) ___________.
A. to
achieve an effective person/job match
B. to achieve an effective
person/organization match
C. to help the newcomer fit into the job in the
long-term
D. all of the above are true
70. From
the newcomer's perspective, likely components for inclusion in the
socialization process include addressing _________.
A. performance
proficiency
B. organization goals and values
C. politics
D. all
of the above are correct
71. Research
has shown that ____ facilitates employee socialization to a new
job.
A. clarifying job requirements and knowledge and skills to be
acquired
B. minimizing biasing contact from current
co-workers
C. providing a highly positive recruitment message regarding
job requirements at rewards
D. all of the above
72. The
delivery of newcomer socialization should be the responsibility of
__________.
A. his/her supervisor
B. a mentor or
sponsor
C. the HR department
D. all of the above
73. Although
organizations are strongly encouraged to check the authorization to work of all
employees, they cannot discriminate against applicants on the basis of country
of origin.
True False
74. It
is best to ask for proof of employment eligibility prior to making a job offer.
True False
75. Negligent
hiring claims are made when an employer fails to provide adequate compensation
and benefits to a new hire.
True False
76. Having
applicants sign release statements so the employer can do background
investigations is a legal means for minimizing the possibility of negligent
hiring.
True False
77. In
general, the employment relationship is an at-will
one.
True False
78. Under
the requirements of the Immigration Reform and Control Act, employers must ___________.
A. adjust
pay scales for alien status
B. verify employability status for aliens
only
C. verify employability status for all potential
employees
D. verify employability status for applicants before an offer is
extended
79. Which
of the following statements about negligent hiring lawsuits against employers
is accurate?
A. monetary damages are usually leveled against the
employee found to be at fault
B. the plaintiff must present evidence the
injury or harm was a foreseeable consequence of hiring the unfit
employee
C. the employer has the initial burden to present evidence of
proper hiring practice in such cases
D. suits of this kind are decreasing
as companies in the private sector recognize the liabilities involved
80. To
reduce the likelihood of negligent hiring lawsuits organizations should
_____.
A. emphasize characteristics like licensure requirements,
criminal records, and references
B. avoid gathering too much KSAO
information because it can be used to demonstrate that an organization "should
have known" an employee would be a problem
C. refuse to fire
individuals with a history of mental illnesses
D. none of the above are
useful to prevent negligent hiring suits
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